1. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)
Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances.
The value of the administarive distance can not be altered by the network administrator.
Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.
The metric is always determined based on hop count.
The metric varies depending which Layer 3 protocol is being routed, such as IP or IPX.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?
R1 will install a RIP route using network A in its routing table because the administrative distance of RIP is higher than EIGRP.
R1 will install a RIP route using network A in its routing table because the path cost from RIP is lower than EIGRP.
R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.
R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the path cost from EIGRP is lower than RIP.
R1 will install an EIGRP route and a RIP route in its routing table and load balance between them.
3. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
sends subnet mask information in routing updates
sends complete routing table update to all neighbors
is supported by RIP version 1
allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology
reduces the amount of address space available in an organization
4. Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?
show ip protocols
show ip route
show ip interface brief
show ip interface
5. Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?
RIP uses hop count and bandwidth as the metric for path selection and sends updates periodically.
OSPF is a Cisco proprietary protocol that sends updates triggered by topology changes.
EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.
BGP is a path vector interior routing protocol.
6. Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)
the network requires a special hierarchical design
fast convergence of the network is crucial
the network is using a hub and spoke topology
the network is using a flat design
there are more than 15 hops between the most distant routers
7. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.
8. Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
They use hop count as their only metric.
They only send out updates when a new network is added.
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
They flood the entire network with routing updates.
9. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
low processor overhead
poison reverse
routing loops
split horizon
shortest-path first calculations
10. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.
11. Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged?
The routers in the network are operating with dynamic routing protocols.
The routers in the network are operating with compatible versions of IOS.
The routers in the network are operating with the same routing tables.
The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.
12. Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)
RIP uses bandwidth as a metric.
OSPF uses delay as a metric.
EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.
OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.
RIP uses delay as a metric.
EIGRP uses hop count only as a metric.
13. Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).
increased security
reduced effort in configuring routes
the administrator maintains control over routing
easier to implement in a growing network
reduces the chance of routing errors
increased router resource usage
14. The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?
A packet destined for host 192.168.252.2 will be forwarded out the interface connected to network 209.165.201.0/24.
The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.
This route was manually configured using the ip route command.
192.168.252.2 is an interface on the router that produced this output.
15. What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown
The 172.16.3.0 network will be routed by any dynamic routing protocol automatically.
A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".
A static route is required to route traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network.
The commands will be saved to the startup-configuration automatically.
16. An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?
The administrative distance of this route is 1.
192.168.1.2 is the address of an interface on this router.
This route will display as a directly connected network in the routing table.
Packets with a destination IP address of 192.168.1.2 will be forwarded to the 10.0.0.0/24 network first.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?
Router1 will have 6 directly connected networks.
The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.
The metric for routes to 172.16.0.0 will be 1.
The interface that is used to forward packets to 172.16.0.0 will always be the S0/1 interface.
18. The following line of code is present in the routing table:
O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?
The cost for this link has a value of 129.
The clock rate on this serial interface is set to 129,000.
The next-hop router is 129 hops away from this router.
This route has been updated 129 times in this routing table.
19. A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?
Distance vector routing protocols, such as RIP, converge more quickly than do link-state routing protocols.
EIGRP can be used on all of the routers in the company.
OSPF can be used between the routers.
An exterior routing protocol, such as BGP, is recommended for growing companies.
20. Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?
3
4
56
624
724
21. A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?
The router will install the first route it learned into the routing table.
The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.
The router will put the first route in the routing table, and denote the second route as a backup route.
The router will pick the path with the higher bandwidth and will place it in the routing table.
วันพุธที่ 11 มิถุนายน พ.ศ. 2551
CCNA 1 Module 11 v.4
1 Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?
UBAMA# configure terminal
UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
UBAMA(config)# line console 0
UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
2 In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?
after a system restart
as the commands are entered
when logging off the system
when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration
3 Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret cisco
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret cisco
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A
enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A
4 When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?
AUX
Ethernet
Console
Telnet
SSH
5 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4
RouterB(config-if)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login
6 Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?
show running-config
show startup-config
show interfaces
show ip route
show version
show memory
7 Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)
line configuration mode
user executive mode
global configuration mode
privileged executive mode
interface configuration mode
enable mode
8 What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?
Router# name Fontana
Router# hostname Fontana
Router(config)# name Fontana
Router(config)# hostname Fontana
9 The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2
10 Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?
Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
IP assigned to the serial port on Router B
11 Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?
NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
NA-SW1(config-if)# description description
12 Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)
show flash
show NVRAM
show startup-config
show running-config
show version
13 Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)
hot keys
context-check
context-sensitive
structured check
command override
command syntax check
14 Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)
The host A is turned off.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.
15 Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?
Ctrl-C
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-R
Ctrl-Shift-6
Ctrl-Z
16 The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?
Ping router B S0/1 connection from router C.
Trace the connection between router B to router C S0/1.
Issue a show ip route command in router B to verify routing is enabled.
Issue a show interfaces command on router C.
17 In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?
RAM
ROM
Flash
NVRAM
18 On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?
toinen
19 A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
Telnet
Console
AUX
SSH
UBAMA# configure terminal
UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
UBAMA(config)# line console 0
UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
2 In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?
after a system restart
as the commands are entered
when logging off the system
when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration
3 Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret cisco
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret cisco
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A
enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A
4 When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?
AUX
Ethernet
Console
Telnet
SSH
5 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4
RouterB(config-if)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login
6 Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?
show running-config
show startup-config
show interfaces
show ip route
show version
show memory
7 Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)
line configuration mode
user executive mode
global configuration mode
privileged executive mode
interface configuration mode
enable mode
8 What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?
Router# name Fontana
Router# hostname Fontana
Router(config)# name Fontana
Router(config)# hostname Fontana
9 The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2
10 Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?
Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
IP assigned to the serial port on Router B
11 Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?
NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
NA-SW1(config-if)# description description
12 Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)
show flash
show NVRAM
show startup-config
show running-config
show version
13 Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)
hot keys
context-check
context-sensitive
structured check
command override
command syntax check
14 Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)
The host A is turned off.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.
15 Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?
Ctrl-C
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-R
Ctrl-Shift-6
Ctrl-Z
16 The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?
Ping router B S0/1 connection from router C.
Trace the connection between router B to router C S0/1.
Issue a show ip route command in router B to verify routing is enabled.
Issue a show interfaces command on router C.
17 In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?
RAM
ROM
Flash
NVRAM
18 On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?
toinen
19 A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
Telnet
Console
AUX
SSH
CCNA 1 Module 10 v.4
1 Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)
connecting a PC to a router's console port
connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds
2 Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)
They propagate broadcasts.
They enlarge collision domains.
They segment broadcast domains.
They interconnect different network technologies.
Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.
3 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?
router
hub
switch
wireless access point
4 A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
STP
UTP
coaxial
single-mode fiber
multimode fiber
5 Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)
Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
Five broadcast domains are present.
Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Four broadcast domains are present.
xFive networks are shown.
Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.
6 Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco's V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)
RJ 11
DB 60
Winchester 15 pin
DB 9
smart serial
RJ 45
7 How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
30
256
2046
2048
4094
4096
8 Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?
both host A and B would be successful
host A would be successful, host B would fail
host B would be successful, host A would fail
both Host A and B would fail
9 Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?
192.168.1.1
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2
192.168.3.1
192.168.3.54
10 Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.
11 A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
12 Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?
wireless access point
router
hub
switch
13 Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?
2
3
4
5
14 What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
loss of signal strength as distance increases
time for a signal to reach its destination
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
strengthening of a signal by a networking device
15 To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?
crossover cable
straight through cable
rollover cable
V.35 cable
16 What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
greater distances per cable run
lower installation cost
xlimited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
durable connections
xgreater bandwidth potential
easily terminated
17 Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
18 Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0
19 What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
cross-over
straight-through
rollover
patch cable
20 Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
AUX interface
Ethernet interface
serial interface
console interface
21 What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)
direct configuration of the device
cable color code association
cable selection and configuration
use of cable testers to determine pinouts
the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port
22 Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
hub
switch
bridge
router
repeater
23 Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
1
3
4
5
7
connecting a PC to a router's console port
connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds
2 Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)
They propagate broadcasts.
They enlarge collision domains.
They segment broadcast domains.
They interconnect different network technologies.
Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.
3 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?
router
hub
switch
wireless access point
4 A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
STP
UTP
coaxial
single-mode fiber
multimode fiber
5 Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)
Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
Five broadcast domains are present.
Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Four broadcast domains are present.
xFive networks are shown.
Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.
6 Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco's V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)
RJ 11
DB 60
Winchester 15 pin
DB 9
smart serial
RJ 45
7 How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
30
256
2046
2048
4094
4096
8 Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?
both host A and B would be successful
host A would be successful, host B would fail
host B would be successful, host A would fail
both Host A and B would fail
9 Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?
192.168.1.1
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2
192.168.3.1
192.168.3.54
10 Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.
11 A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
12 Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?
wireless access point
router
hub
switch
13 Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?
2
3
4
5
14 What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
loss of signal strength as distance increases
time for a signal to reach its destination
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
strengthening of a signal by a networking device
15 To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?
crossover cable
straight through cable
rollover cable
V.35 cable
16 What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
greater distances per cable run
lower installation cost
xlimited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
durable connections
xgreater bandwidth potential
easily terminated
17 Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
18 Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0
19 What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
cross-over
straight-through
rollover
patch cable
20 Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
AUX interface
Ethernet interface
serial interface
console interface
21 What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)
direct configuration of the device
cable color code association
cable selection and configuration
use of cable testers to determine pinouts
the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port
22 Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
hub
switch
bridge
router
repeater
23 Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
1
3
4
5
7
CCNA 1 Module 9 v.4
1 In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?
Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.
2 Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
Network layer
Transport layer
Physical layer
Application layer
Session layer
Data-link layer
3 Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)
the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame
the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable
4 What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)
addressing
error detection
frame delimiting
port identification
path determination
IP address resolution
5 When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. <---
The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.
6 What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)
recognizes streams of bits
identifies the network layer protocol
makes the connection with the upper layers
identifies the source and destination applications
insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment
determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting
7 What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?
MAC sublayer
Physical layer
Logical Link Control sublayer
Network layer
8 Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.
9 Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?
header field - preamble and stop frame
data field - network layer packet
data field - physical addressing
trailer field - FCS and SoF
10 Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the packet.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.
11 Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
Collisions can decrease network performance.
It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.
12 Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
application
physical
transport
internet
data link
network access
13 What is the primary purpose of ARP?
translate URLs to IP addresses
resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
convert internal private addresses to external public addresses
14 Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.
15 Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.
16 Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
dynamically assigned
copied into RAM during system startup
layer 3 address
contains a 3 byte OUI
6 bytes long
32 bits long
17 Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)
reduction in cross-talk
minimizing of collisions
support for UTP cabling
division into broadcast domains
increase in the throughput of communications
18 What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)
coaxial thicknet
copper UTP
coaxial thinnet
optical fiber
shielded twisted pair
19 Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
85
90
BA
A1
B3
1C
20 After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?
the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
those that began transmitting at the same time
Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.
2 Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
Network layer
Transport layer
Physical layer
Application layer
Session layer
Data-link layer
3 Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)
the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame
the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable
4 What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)
addressing
error detection
frame delimiting
port identification
path determination
IP address resolution
5 When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. <---
The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.
6 What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)
recognizes streams of bits
identifies the network layer protocol
makes the connection with the upper layers
identifies the source and destination applications
insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment
determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting
7 What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?
MAC sublayer
Physical layer
Logical Link Control sublayer
Network layer
8 Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.
9 Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?
header field - preamble and stop frame
data field - network layer packet
data field - physical addressing
trailer field - FCS and SoF
10 Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the packet.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.
11 Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
Collisions can decrease network performance.
It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.
12 Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
application
physical
transport
internet
data link
network access
13 What is the primary purpose of ARP?
translate URLs to IP addresses
resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
convert internal private addresses to external public addresses
14 Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.
15 Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.
16 Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
dynamically assigned
copied into RAM during system startup
layer 3 address
contains a 3 byte OUI
6 bytes long
32 bits long
17 Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)
reduction in cross-talk
minimizing of collisions
support for UTP cabling
division into broadcast domains
increase in the throughput of communications
18 What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)
coaxial thicknet
copper UTP
coaxial thinnet
optical fiber
shielded twisted pair
19 Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
85
90
BA
A1
B3
1C
20 After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?
the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
those that began transmitting at the same time
CCNA 1 Module 8 v.4
1 Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?
Xbackbone cable
horizontal cable
patch cable
work area cable
2 In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
BNC
RJ-11
RJ-45
Type F
3 When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router
4 With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously
5 Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
Presentation
Transport
Data Link
Physical
6 An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
light injector
OTDR
TDR
multimeter
7 XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)
coax
Cat4 UTP
Cat5 UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP
8 What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.
9 What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)
goodput
frequency
amplitude
throughput
crosstalk
bandwidth
10 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
crossover cable
straight-through cable
11 In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
coax
fiber
Cat5e UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP
12 Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?
kolmas
13 Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
electrical
optical
wireless
acoustic
14 Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.
15 Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
generally uses LEDs as the light source
relatively larger core with multiple light paths
less expensive than multimode
generally uses lasers as the light source
16 What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
more host mobility
lower security risks
reduced susceptibility to interference
less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area
17 What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
the metal braiding in the shielding
the reflective cladding around core
the twisting of the wires in the cable
the insulating material in the outer jacket
18 What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
provide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media
Xbackbone cable
horizontal cable
patch cable
work area cable
2 In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
BNC
RJ-11
RJ-45
Type F
3 When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router
4 With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously
5 Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
Presentation
Transport
Data Link
Physical
6 An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
light injector
OTDR
TDR
multimeter
7 XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)
coax
Cat4 UTP
Cat5 UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP
8 What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.
9 What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)
goodput
frequency
amplitude
throughput
crosstalk
bandwidth
10 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
crossover cable
straight-through cable
11 In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
coax
fiber
Cat5e UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP
12 Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?
kolmas
13 Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
electrical
optical
wireless
acoustic
14 Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.
15 Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
generally uses LEDs as the light source
relatively larger core with multiple light paths
less expensive than multimode
generally uses lasers as the light source
16 What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
more host mobility
lower security risks
reduced susceptibility to interference
less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area
17 What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
the metal braiding in the shielding
the reflective cladding around core
the twisting of the wires in the cable
the insulating material in the outer jacket
18 What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
provide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media
CCNA 1 Module 7 v.4
1 Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)
non-deterministic
less overhead
one station transmits at a time
collisions exist
devices must wait their turn
token passing
2 What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?
provide routes across the internetwork
format the data for presentation to the user
facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
identify the services to which transported data is associated
3 Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?
1
2
4
8
4 What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.
5 Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?
00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
00-12-3f-32-05-af
6 What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
They are 48 binary bits in length.
They are considered physical addresses.
They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
They are used to determine the data path through the network.
They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.
7 Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)
source MAC - PC
source MAC - S0/0 on RouterA
source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB
source IP - PC
source IP - S0/0 on RouterA
source IP - Fa0/1 of RouterB
8 What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
network layer addressing
media sharing
application processes
logical topology
intermediary device function
9 What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros
10 What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data
11 Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.
12 Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?
LLC
MAC
HDLC
NIC
13 What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions
14 What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?
The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
The media access control protocol can be very simple.
The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.
15 What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)
The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
The default gateway address should not be changed.
The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.
16 What is a function of the data link layer?
provides the formatting of data
provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
provides for the exchange data over a common local media
17 Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
the Layer 3 protocol selected
the geographic scope of the network
the PDU defined by the transport layer
the physical layer implementation
the number of hosts to be interconnected
18 What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?
define the logical topology
provide media access control
support frame error detection
carry routing information for the frame
19 A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?
logical topology
physical topology
cable path
wiring grid
access topology
20 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
All three networks use CSMA/CA
None of the networks require media access control.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.
non-deterministic
less overhead
one station transmits at a time
collisions exist
devices must wait their turn
token passing
2 What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?
provide routes across the internetwork
format the data for presentation to the user
facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
identify the services to which transported data is associated
3 Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?
1
2
4
8
4 What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.
5 Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?
00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
00-12-3f-32-05-af
6 What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
They are 48 binary bits in length.
They are considered physical addresses.
They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
They are used to determine the data path through the network.
They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.
7 Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)
source MAC - PC
source MAC - S0/0 on RouterA
source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB
source IP - PC
source IP - S0/0 on RouterA
source IP - Fa0/1 of RouterB
8 What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
network layer addressing
media sharing
application processes
logical topology
intermediary device function
9 What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros
10 What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data
11 Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.
12 Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?
LLC
MAC
HDLC
NIC
13 What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions
14 What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?
The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
The media access control protocol can be very simple.
The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.
15 What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)
The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
The default gateway address should not be changed.
The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.
16 What is a function of the data link layer?
provides the formatting of data
provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
provides for the exchange data over a common local media
17 Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
the Layer 3 protocol selected
the geographic scope of the network
the PDU defined by the transport layer
the physical layer implementation
the number of hosts to be interconnected
18 What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?
define the logical topology
provide media access control
support frame error detection
carry routing information for the frame
19 A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?
logical topology
physical topology
cable path
wiring grid
access topology
20 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
All three networks use CSMA/CA
None of the networks require media access control.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.
CCNA 1 Module 6 v.4
1 How many bits make up an IPv4 address?
128
64
48
32
2 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.252
3 Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1
4 Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.
/24
/16
/20
/27
/25
/28
5 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
The router has an incorrect gateway.
Host A has an overlapping network address.
Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
NAT is required for the host A network.
6 What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0
7 Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
This is a network address.
This is not a valid address.
8 What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
identifies an individual device
is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
is altered as packet is forwarded
varies in length
is used to forward packets
uses flat addressing
9 What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000
10 A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
172.16.0.0
172.16.192.0
172.16.192.128
172.16.192.160
172.16.192.168
172.16.192.176
11 Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
The default gateway device is not operating.
A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.
12 What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)
The router will discard the packet.
The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.
The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.
13 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is designing security rules for the 192.168.22.0 /24 network. Each security rule requires an address and mask pair to represent the machines that will be affected by the rule. Which two address and mask pairs will be the most precise way to reference the servers and hosts separately. (Choose two.)
192.168.22.40 255.255.255.248
192.168.22.40 255.255.255.252
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.128
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.254
192.168.22.1 255.255.255.192
192.168.22.101 255.255.255.224
14 Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)
larger address space
faster routing protocols
data types and classes of service
authentication and encryption
improved host naming conventions
same addressing scheme as IPv4
15 Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
binary adding
hexadecimal anding
binary division
binary multiplication
binary ANDing
16 What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
security
header format simplification
expanded addressing capabilities
addressing simplification
17 Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
172.168.33.1
10.35.66.70
192.168.99.5
172.18.88.90
192.33.55.89
172.35.16.5
18 Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.
19 Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
172.16.4.127 /26
172.16.4.155 /26
172.16.4.193 /26
172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.159 /27
172.16.4.207 /27
20 What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?
an internet
a network
an octet
a radi
21 Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
22 Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)
LAN workstations
servers
network printers
routers
remote workstations
laptops
128
64
48
32
2 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.252
3 Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1
4 Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.
/24
/16
/20
/27
/25
/28
5 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
The router has an incorrect gateway.
Host A has an overlapping network address.
Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
NAT is required for the host A network.
6 What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0
7 Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
This is a network address.
This is not a valid address.
8 What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
identifies an individual device
is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
is altered as packet is forwarded
varies in length
is used to forward packets
uses flat addressing
9 What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000
10 A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
172.16.0.0
172.16.192.0
172.16.192.128
172.16.192.160
172.16.192.168
172.16.192.176
11 Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
The default gateway device is not operating.
A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.
12 What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)
The router will discard the packet.
The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.
The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.
13 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is designing security rules for the 192.168.22.0 /24 network. Each security rule requires an address and mask pair to represent the machines that will be affected by the rule. Which two address and mask pairs will be the most precise way to reference the servers and hosts separately. (Choose two.)
192.168.22.40 255.255.255.248
192.168.22.40 255.255.255.252
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.128
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.254
192.168.22.1 255.255.255.192
192.168.22.101 255.255.255.224
14 Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)
larger address space
faster routing protocols
data types and classes of service
authentication and encryption
improved host naming conventions
same addressing scheme as IPv4
15 Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
binary adding
hexadecimal anding
binary division
binary multiplication
binary ANDing
16 What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
security
header format simplification
expanded addressing capabilities
addressing simplification
17 Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
172.168.33.1
10.35.66.70
192.168.99.5
172.18.88.90
192.33.55.89
172.35.16.5
18 Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.
19 Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
172.16.4.127 /26
172.16.4.155 /26
172.16.4.193 /26
172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.159 /27
172.16.4.207 /27
20 What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?
an internet
a network
an octet
a radi
21 Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
22 Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)
LAN workstations
servers
network printers
routers
remote workstations
laptops
CCNA 1 Module 2 v.4
1. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
Network
Transport
Physical
Data Link
Session
2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
supports error detection
ensures ordered arrival of data
provides delivery to correct destination
identifies the devices on the local network
assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection
3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
No address is added.
The logical address is added.
The physical address is added.
The process port number is added.
4. What device is considered an intermediary device?
file server
IP phone
laptop
printer
switch
5. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
physical
data link
network
transport
6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
determine pathways for data
initiate data communications
retime and retransmit data signals
originate the flow of data
manage data flows
final termination point for data flow
7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
the destination device on the local media
the path to use to reach the destination host
the bits that will be transferred over the media
the source application or process creating the data
8. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application
9. Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Network A -- WAN
Network B -- WAN
Network C -- LAN
Network B -- MAN
Network C -- WAN
Network A -- LAN
10. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
allows modification of the original data before transmission
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
enables consistent network paths for communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
enables the reassembly of complete messages
tracks delay between end devices
11. Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
piping
PDU
streaming
multiplexing
encapsulation
12. What is a PDU?
corruption of a frame during transmission
data reassembled at the destination
retransmitted packets due to lost communication
a layer specific encapsulation
13. Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"
the destination device
an end device
an intermediate device
a media device
14. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
A, C, D
B, E, G, H
C, D, G, H, I, J
D, E, F, H, I, J
E, F, H, I, J
15. Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
source
end
transfer
intermediary
16. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
The network is administered by a single organization.
The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).
17. Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
WAN
MAN
LAN
WLAN
18. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
path determination and packet switching
data representation, encoding, and control
reliability, flow control, and error detection
detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it
the division of segments into packets
19. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
manage data flows
originate data flow
retime and retransmit data signals
determine pathways for data
20. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
to identify devices on the local media
to identify the hops between source and destination
to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices
21. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
define the structure of layer specific PDU's
dictate how to accomplish layer functions
outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
limit hardware compatibility
require layer dependent encapsulations
eliminate standardization among vendors
Network
Transport
Physical
Data Link
Session
2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
supports error detection
ensures ordered arrival of data
provides delivery to correct destination
identifies the devices on the local network
assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection
3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
No address is added.
The logical address is added.
The physical address is added.
The process port number is added.
4. What device is considered an intermediary device?
file server
IP phone
laptop
printer
switch
5. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
physical
data link
network
transport
6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
determine pathways for data
initiate data communications
retime and retransmit data signals
originate the flow of data
manage data flows
final termination point for data flow
7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
the destination device on the local media
the path to use to reach the destination host
the bits that will be transferred over the media
the source application or process creating the data
8. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application
9. Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Network A -- WAN
Network B -- WAN
Network C -- LAN
Network B -- MAN
Network C -- WAN
Network A -- LAN
10. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
allows modification of the original data before transmission
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
enables consistent network paths for communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
enables the reassembly of complete messages
tracks delay between end devices
11. Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
piping
PDU
streaming
multiplexing
encapsulation
12. What is a PDU?
corruption of a frame during transmission
data reassembled at the destination
retransmitted packets due to lost communication
a layer specific encapsulation
13. Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"
the destination device
an end device
an intermediate device
a media device
14. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
A, C, D
B, E, G, H
C, D, G, H, I, J
D, E, F, H, I, J
E, F, H, I, J
15. Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
source
end
transfer
intermediary
16. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
The network is administered by a single organization.
The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).
17. Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
WAN
MAN
LAN
WLAN
18. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
path determination and packet switching
data representation, encoding, and control
reliability, flow control, and error detection
detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it
the division of segments into packets
19. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
manage data flows
originate data flow
retime and retransmit data signals
determine pathways for data
20. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
to identify devices on the local media
to identify the hops between source and destination
to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices
21. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
define the structure of layer specific PDU's
dictate how to accomplish layer functions
outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
limit hardware compatibility
require layer dependent encapsulations
eliminate standardization among vendors
CCNA 1 Module 5 v.4
1 In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address
2 What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
source and destination MAC
source and destination application protocol
source and destination port number
source and destination IP address
3 In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.
4 Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
type-of-service
identification
flags
time-to-live
header checksum
5 Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
host portion
broadcast address
network portion
gateway address
6 Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
192.135.250.1
192.31.7.1
192.133.219.0
192.133.219.1
7 If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.
8 What is the purpose of a default gateway?
physically connects a computer to a network
provides a permanent address to a computer
identifies the network to which a computer is connected
identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks
9 What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
dynamic
interior
static
standard
10 When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.
11 What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
gateways
purpose
physical addressing
software version
geographic location
ownership
12 What is a component of a routing table entry?
the MAC address of the interface of the router
the destination Layer 4 port number
the destination host address
the next-hop address
13 Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
router
hub
switch
firewall
access point
bridge
14 What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
too few broadcasts
performance degradation
security issues
limited management responsibility
host identification
protocol compatibility
15 Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
3
4
5
7
8
11
16 Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.
17 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
10.10.10.26
127.0.0.1
10.10.10.6
10.10.10.1
224.0.0.0
18 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
Replace S2 with a router.
Place all servers on S1.
Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.
19 Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
20 What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
require no device configuration
provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
require less processing power than static routes require
consume bandwidth to exchange route information
prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table
21 What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.
destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address
2 What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
source and destination MAC
source and destination application protocol
source and destination port number
source and destination IP address
3 In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.
4 Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
type-of-service
identification
flags
time-to-live
header checksum
5 Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
host portion
broadcast address
network portion
gateway address
6 Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
192.135.250.1
192.31.7.1
192.133.219.0
192.133.219.1
7 If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.
8 What is the purpose of a default gateway?
physically connects a computer to a network
provides a permanent address to a computer
identifies the network to which a computer is connected
identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks
9 What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
dynamic
interior
static
standard
10 When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.
11 What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
gateways
purpose
physical addressing
software version
geographic location
ownership
12 What is a component of a routing table entry?
the MAC address of the interface of the router
the destination Layer 4 port number
the destination host address
the next-hop address
13 Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
router
hub
switch
firewall
access point
bridge
14 What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
too few broadcasts
performance degradation
security issues
limited management responsibility
host identification
protocol compatibility
15 Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
3
4
5
7
8
11
16 Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.
17 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
10.10.10.26
127.0.0.1
10.10.10.6
10.10.10.1
224.0.0.0
18 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
Replace S2 with a router.
Place all servers on S1.
Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.
19 Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
20 What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
require no device configuration
provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
require less processing power than static routes require
consume bandwidth to exchange route information
prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table
21 What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.
CCNA 1 Module 4 v.4
1 Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.
2 After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
13
53
80
1024
1728
3 Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
sequencing
flow control
acknowledgments
source and destination
4 Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
acknowledgement of data delivery
minimal delays in data delivery
high reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery
5 Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
create a Layer 1 jam signal
reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
send a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header
6 Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
session establishment
segment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect
7 Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?
2
3
6
1850
3431
3475
8 Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
to synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts
9 During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will not be delivered.
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.
10 With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
0 to 255
256 to 1022
0 to 1023
1024 to 2047
49153 to 65535
11 Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
TCP
IP
UDP
HTTP
DNS
12 What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
flow control
low overhead
connectionless
connection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements
13 What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
sequence numbers
session establishment
window size
acknowledgments
14 What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
source port
15 Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order
16 Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
identifies the destination network
identifies source and destination hosts
identifies the communicating applications
identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
identifies the devices communicating over the local media
17 Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
encapsulation
flow control
connectionless services
session establishment
numbering and sequencing
best effort delivery
18 Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
application
presentation
session
transport
network
19 Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
This is a UDP header.
This contains a Telnet request.
This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
This is a TCP header.
20 Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
The two applications exchange data.
TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.
2 After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
13
53
80
1024
1728
3 Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
sequencing
flow control
acknowledgments
source and destination
4 Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
acknowledgement of data delivery
minimal delays in data delivery
high reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery
5 Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
create a Layer 1 jam signal
reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
send a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header
6 Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
session establishment
segment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect
7 Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?
2
3
6
1850
3431
3475
8 Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
to synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts
9 During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will not be delivered.
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.
10 With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
0 to 255
256 to 1022
0 to 1023
1024 to 2047
49153 to 65535
11 Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
TCP
IP
UDP
HTTP
DNS
12 What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
flow control
low overhead
connectionless
connection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements
13 What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
sequence numbers
session establishment
window size
acknowledgments
14 What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
source port
15 Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order
16 Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
identifies the destination network
identifies source and destination hosts
identifies the communicating applications
identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
identifies the devices communicating over the local media
17 Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
encapsulation
flow control
connectionless services
session establishment
numbering and sequencing
best effort delivery
18 Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
application
presentation
session
transport
network
19 Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
This is a UDP header.
This contains a Telnet request.
This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
This is a TCP header.
20 Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
The two applications exchange data.
TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.
CCNA 1 Module 3 v.4
1. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
Network
Transport
Physical
Data Link
Session
2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
supports error detection
ensures ordered arrival of data
provides delivery to correct destination
identifies the devices on the local network
assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection
3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
No address is added.
The logical address is added.
The physical address is added.
The process port number is added.
4. What device is considered an intermediary device?
file server
IP phone
laptop
printer
switch
5. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
physical
data link
network
transport
6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
determine pathways for data
initiate data communications
retime and retransmit data signals
originate the flow of data
manage data flows
final termination point for data flow
7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
the destination device on the local media
the path to use to reach the destination host
the bits that will be transferred over the media
the source application or process creating the data
8. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application
9. Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Network A -- WAN
Network B -- WAN
Network C -- LAN
Network B -- MAN
Network C -- WAN
Network A -- LAN
10. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
allows modification of the original data before transmission
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
enables consistent network paths for communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
enables the reassembly of complete messages
tracks delay between end devices
11. Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
piping
PDU
streaming
multiplexing
encapsulation
12. What is a PDU?
corruption of a frame during transmission
data reassembled at the destination
retransmitted packets due to lost communication
a layer specific encapsulation
13. Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"
the destination device
an end device
an intermediate device
a media device
14. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
A, C, D
B, E, G, H
C, D, G, H, I, J
D, E, F, H, I, J
E, F, H, I, J
15. Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
source
end
transfer
intermediary
16. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
The network is administered by a single organization.
The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).
17. Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
WAN
MAN
LAN
WLAN
18. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
path determination and packet switching
data representation, encoding, and control
reliability, flow control, and error detection
detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it
the division of segments into packets
19. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
manage data flows
originate data flow
retime and retransmit data signals
determine pathways for data
20. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
to identify devices on the local media
to identify the hops between source and destination
to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices
21. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
define the structure of layer specific PDU's
dictate how to accomplish layer functions
outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
limit hardware compatibility
require layer dependent encapsulations
eliminate standardization among vendors
Network
Transport
Physical
Data Link
Session
2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
supports error detection
ensures ordered arrival of data
provides delivery to correct destination
identifies the devices on the local network
assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection
3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
No address is added.
The logical address is added.
The physical address is added.
The process port number is added.
4. What device is considered an intermediary device?
file server
IP phone
laptop
printer
switch
5. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
physical
data link
network
transport
6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
determine pathways for data
initiate data communications
retime and retransmit data signals
originate the flow of data
manage data flows
final termination point for data flow
7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
the destination device on the local media
the path to use to reach the destination host
the bits that will be transferred over the media
the source application or process creating the data
8. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application
9. Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Network A -- WAN
Network B -- WAN
Network C -- LAN
Network B -- MAN
Network C -- WAN
Network A -- LAN
10. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
allows modification of the original data before transmission
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
enables consistent network paths for communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
enables the reassembly of complete messages
tracks delay between end devices
11. Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
piping
PDU
streaming
multiplexing
encapsulation
12. What is a PDU?
corruption of a frame during transmission
data reassembled at the destination
retransmitted packets due to lost communication
a layer specific encapsulation
13. Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"
the destination device
an end device
an intermediate device
a media device
14. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
A, C, D
B, E, G, H
C, D, G, H, I, J
D, E, F, H, I, J
E, F, H, I, J
15. Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
source
end
transfer
intermediary
16. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
The network is administered by a single organization.
The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).
17. Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
WAN
MAN
LAN
WLAN
18. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
path determination and packet switching
data representation, encoding, and control
reliability, flow control, and error detection
detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it
the division of segments into packets
19. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
manage data flows
originate data flow
retime and retransmit data signals
determine pathways for data
20. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
to identify devices on the local media
to identify the hops between source and destination
to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices
21. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
define the structure of layer specific PDU's
dictate how to accomplish layer functions
outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
limit hardware compatibility
require layer dependent encapsulations
eliminate standardization among vendors
CCNA 2 Module 2 v.4
1. Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
load
platform
reliability
holdtime
local interface
2. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?
Adding the next-hop address eliminates the need for the router to do any lookups in the routing table before forwarding a packet.
In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.
Using a next-hop address in a static route provides a route with a lower metric.
In multi-access networks, using a next-hop address in a static route makes that route a candidate default route.
3. The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:
Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.
What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?
Serial0/1 is shutdown.
There is no cable connecting the routers.
The remote router is using serial 0/0.
No clock rate has been set.
4. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?
administrative distance of 0 and metric of 0
administrative distance of 0 and metric of 1
administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0
administrative distance of 1 and metric of 1
5. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
A(config)# no network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# no ip address 10.0.0.1 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s0/0/0
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
6. Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1R2(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.2.1R2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?
ip route 192.168.0.0 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/1
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0
8. What address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.4.0/24?
172.16.0.0/21
172.16.1.0/22
172.16.0.0 255.255.255.248
172.16.0.0 255.255.252.0
9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
It indicates that there are 8 hops between this router and the 10.0.0.0 network.
It represents the time, in milliseconds, it takes for a ping to reply when sent to the 10.0.0.0 network.
It indicates that there are 8 subnets in the destination network to which the router can forward packets.
It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route.
10. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
the serial port of the router
a modem
a switch the ethernet port of the router
a CSU/DSU device
a DTE device
11. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?
drops the packet because the destination host is not listed in the routing table
looks up the MAC address of the S0/1/0 interface to determine the destination MAC address of the new frame
performs a recursive lookup for the IP address of the S0/1/0 interface before forwarding the packet
encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface
12. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
Interface speed and duplex
Interface MTU
Errors
Interface MAC address
Interface IP address
13. Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers A, B, C, and E.
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.
If routers D and E are running different routing protocols, they will not exchange CDP information.
Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.
14. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)
It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP.
It operates at the network layer and allows two systems to learn about each other.
It creates a topology map of the entire network.
It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.
It forwards advertisements about routes for faster convergence.
15. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
ping
show arp
traceroute
show ip route
show interface
show cdp neighbor detail
16. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
The route is removed from the table.
The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
The route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
The router redirects the static route to compensate for the loss of the next hop device.
17. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
192.1.1.0/26 and 192.1.1.64/27
192.1.1.128/25
192.1.1.0/23 and 192.1.1.64/23
192.1.1.0/24
192.1.1.0/25
192.1.1.0/24 and 192.1.1.64/24
18. Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/1.
There is no matching interface associated with network 172.16.0.0 so packets will be dropped.
There is no matching interface associated with network 172.16.0.0 so packets will take gateway of last resort and exit out S0/2.
19. A router has one static route to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)
The destination network no longer exists.
The destination network is moved to a different interface on the same router.
The path between the source and destination is upgraded with a higher bandwidth link.
A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.
The remote destination network interface has to be down for 15 minutes of maintenance.
20. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?
The rate would be negotiated by both routers.
A rate would not be selected due to the DCE/DTE connection mismatch.
The rate configured on the DTE determines the clock rate.
The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate.
21. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
*WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2Altamonte(config)# ip route 198.18.222.0 255.255.255.255 s0/1
WinterPark(config)# ip route 172.191.67.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.1
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
WinterPark(config)# ip route 172.191.67.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.1Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0
22. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
*A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A (config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/0/0
*B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0
B (config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.40.1
B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/1/0
load
platform
reliability
holdtime
local interface
2. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?
Adding the next-hop address eliminates the need for the router to do any lookups in the routing table before forwarding a packet.
In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.
Using a next-hop address in a static route provides a route with a lower metric.
In multi-access networks, using a next-hop address in a static route makes that route a candidate default route.
3. The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:
Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.
What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?
Serial0/1 is shutdown.
There is no cable connecting the routers.
The remote router is using serial 0/0.
No clock rate has been set.
4. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?
administrative distance of 0 and metric of 0
administrative distance of 0 and metric of 1
administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0
administrative distance of 1 and metric of 1
5. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
A(config)# no network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# no ip address 10.0.0.1 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s0/0/0
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
6. Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1R2(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.2.1R2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?
ip route 192.168.0.0 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/1
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0
8. What address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.4.0/24?
172.16.0.0/21
172.16.1.0/22
172.16.0.0 255.255.255.248
172.16.0.0 255.255.252.0
9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
It indicates that there are 8 hops between this router and the 10.0.0.0 network.
It represents the time, in milliseconds, it takes for a ping to reply when sent to the 10.0.0.0 network.
It indicates that there are 8 subnets in the destination network to which the router can forward packets.
It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route.
10. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
the serial port of the router
a modem
a switch the ethernet port of the router
a CSU/DSU device
a DTE device
11. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?
drops the packet because the destination host is not listed in the routing table
looks up the MAC address of the S0/1/0 interface to determine the destination MAC address of the new frame
performs a recursive lookup for the IP address of the S0/1/0 interface before forwarding the packet
encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface
12. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
Interface speed and duplex
Interface MTU
Errors
Interface MAC address
Interface IP address
13. Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers A, B, C, and E.
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.
If routers D and E are running different routing protocols, they will not exchange CDP information.
Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.
14. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)
It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP.
It operates at the network layer and allows two systems to learn about each other.
It creates a topology map of the entire network.
It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.
It forwards advertisements about routes for faster convergence.
15. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
ping
show arp
traceroute
show ip route
show interface
show cdp neighbor detail
16. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
The route is removed from the table.
The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
The route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
The router redirects the static route to compensate for the loss of the next hop device.
17. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
192.1.1.0/26 and 192.1.1.64/27
192.1.1.128/25
192.1.1.0/23 and 192.1.1.64/23
192.1.1.0/24
192.1.1.0/25
192.1.1.0/24 and 192.1.1.64/24
18. Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/1.
There is no matching interface associated with network 172.16.0.0 so packets will be dropped.
There is no matching interface associated with network 172.16.0.0 so packets will take gateway of last resort and exit out S0/2.
19. A router has one static route to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)
The destination network no longer exists.
The destination network is moved to a different interface on the same router.
The path between the source and destination is upgraded with a higher bandwidth link.
A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.
The remote destination network interface has to be down for 15 minutes of maintenance.
20. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?
The rate would be negotiated by both routers.
A rate would not be selected due to the DCE/DTE connection mismatch.
The rate configured on the DTE determines the clock rate.
The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate.
21. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
*WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2Altamonte(config)# ip route 198.18.222.0 255.255.255.255 s0/1
WinterPark(config)# ip route 172.191.67.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.1
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
WinterPark(config)# ip route 172.191.67.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.1Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0
22. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
*A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A (config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/0/0
*B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0
B (config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.40.1
B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/1/0
วันจันทร์ที่ 9 มิถุนายน พ.ศ. 2551
CCNA 2 Module 1 v.4
1. If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?
The startup sequence will reset.
The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.
The startup sequence will halt until a valid configuration file is acquired.
The router will generate a default configuration file based on the last valid configuration.
The router will monitor local traffic to determine routing protocol configuration requirements.
2. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?
The destination networks do not exist.
The IP addresses on the router interfaces must be configured as network addresses and not host addresses.
The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.
Each interface must be configured with the clock rate command.
3. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
This router only has two interfaces.
The router interfaces are not operational yet.
This router is configured to forward packets to remote networks.
The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.
4. Refer to the exhibit. The frame shown in the exhibit was received by the router. The router interfaces are operational. How will the router process this frame? (Choose two.)
The router will change the source and destination IP address in the packet before forwarding the frame.
The router will change the frame type to one supported by the WAN link before forwarding the frame.
The router will use the destination MAC address to determine which interface to forward the packet.
The router will look up the MAC address of the S0/0/0 interface in the ARP table and add it to the frame before forwarding.
The frame was received on the Fa0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the S0/0/0 interface.
The frame was received on the S0/0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the Fa0/0 interface.
5. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
VTY interface
console interface
Ethernet interface
secret EXEC mode
privileged EXEC mode
router configuration mode
6. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)
RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence.
ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence.
Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.
ROM contains the most current and most complete version of the IOS.
Flash contains boot system commands to identify the location of the IOS.
The startup sequence will reset.
The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.
The startup sequence will halt until a valid configuration file is acquired.
The router will generate a default configuration file based on the last valid configuration.
The router will monitor local traffic to determine routing protocol configuration requirements.
2. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?
The destination networks do not exist.
The IP addresses on the router interfaces must be configured as network addresses and not host addresses.
The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.
Each interface must be configured with the clock rate command.
3. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
This router only has two interfaces.
The router interfaces are not operational yet.
This router is configured to forward packets to remote networks.
The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.
4. Refer to the exhibit. The frame shown in the exhibit was received by the router. The router interfaces are operational. How will the router process this frame? (Choose two.)
The router will change the source and destination IP address in the packet before forwarding the frame.
The router will change the frame type to one supported by the WAN link before forwarding the frame.
The router will use the destination MAC address to determine which interface to forward the packet.
The router will look up the MAC address of the S0/0/0 interface in the ARP table and add it to the frame before forwarding.
The frame was received on the Fa0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the S0/0/0 interface.
The frame was received on the S0/0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the Fa0/0 interface.
5. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
VTY interface
console interface
Ethernet interface
secret EXEC mode
privileged EXEC mode
router configuration mode
6. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)
RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence.
ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence.
Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.
ROM contains the most current and most complete version of the IOS.
Flash contains boot system commands to identify the location of the IOS.
7. Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.
8. Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.)
packet switching
extension of network segments
segmentation of broadcast domains
selection of best path based on logical addressing
selection of best path based on physical addressing
9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.)
If RouterC receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.1.1, it will be forwarded out interface Fa0/0.
If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 172.20.255.1, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/0.
If RouterC receives a packet that is destined for 192.16.5.101, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
10. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2
11. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?
The passwords are encrypted.
The current configuration was saved to NVRAM.
The configuration that is shown will be the one used on the next reboot.
The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.
12. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
source IP address: 192.168.10.129
source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666
destination IP address: 192.168.10.33
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234
13. What is the outcome of entering these commands?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# password check123
R1(config-line)# login
ensures that a password is entered before entering user EXEC mode
sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet
requires check123 to be entered before the configuration can be saved
creates a local user account for logging in to a router or switch
14. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration
load bootstrap, apply configuration, load IOS
load IOS, load bootstrap, apply configuration, check hardware
check hardware, apply configuration, load bootstrap, load IOS
15. What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.)
decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header
uses the destination MAC Address in the IP Header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
leaves the Layer 2 frame header intact when decapsulating the Layer 3 packet
uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface
encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into a special Layer 1 frame and forwards it to the exit interface
16. The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?
straight-through
rollover
cross-over
serial
17. Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)
Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet to different destination networks.
Load balancing occurs when the same number of packets are sent over static and dynamic routes.
Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.
If multiple paths with different metrics to a destinations exist, the router cannot support load balancing.
18. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)
the last restart method
the command buffer contents
the amount of NVRAM and FLASH used
the configuration register settings
the location from where the IOS loaded
19. Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.)
1
2
3
4
5
6
20. From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)
RAM
TFTP server
NVRAM
setup routine
Flash memory
terminal
21. A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?
Router1# copy running-config flash
Router1(config)# copy running-config flash
Router1# copy running-config startup-config
Router1(config)# copy running-config startup-config
Router1# copy startup-config running-config
Router1(config)# copy startup-config running-config
22. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
NVRAM, FLASH, ROM
FLASH, TFTP,CONSOLE
NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE
FLASH, TFTP, ROM
23. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
only the Layer 2 source address
only the Layer 2 destination address
only the Layer 3 source address
only the Layer 3 destination address
the Layer 2 source and destination address
the Layer 3 source and destination address
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